I suppose this post is directed mainly at skelters and AlfaScozzesi but others may also have opinions on the matter...
First of all, I'd like to say that this isn't meant to be provocative or inflammatory, it's really to try to understand the logic behind some of the posts that have been made over the last day-or-so
I don't have any problem accepting that an independent Scotland could, at the very worst, make ends meet and survive as an independent country but, given that
- In the Independence Referendum the vote split was 55% to 45% in favour of remaining a member of the UK
- In the EU Referendum the vote split in Scotland was 62% to 38% in favour of remaining a member of the EU
These are separate events yet there seems to be an assumption that because Scotland wanted to remain part of the EU the people will default to splitting from the UK to stay with (or rejoin) the EU i.e. that a second Independence vote will be heavily influenced by the 'carrot' of EU Membership - surely it's a non sequitur to assume that because people voted 'Remain' they'll also vote for Independence.
Was there any firm indication during the Independence Referendum that the UK's EU Membership significantly affected the vote?
As the dust settles, people are likely to fall into three camps as far as their view of furture of Scotland is concerned
A - Independence & EU Membership
B - Independence and no EU Membership
C - Remain part of the UK with no EU Membership
When/if a second Independence Referendum takes place, those in the 'A' & 'C' camps above will have no problem deciding which way to vote, while those in the 'B' camp will have to decide if 'A' or 'C' is the lesser of two evils and I don't understand why the assumption seems to be that they'll head, en mass, for 'A'
As I said earlier, this isn't intended to be argumentative - I'd just like to understand the reasoning behind the assumption, at this point in time, that a second IndyRef will go in favour of Independence.
First of all, I'd like to say that this isn't meant to be provocative or inflammatory, it's really to try to understand the logic behind some of the posts that have been made over the last day-or-so
I don't have any problem accepting that an independent Scotland could, at the very worst, make ends meet and survive as an independent country but, given that
- In the Independence Referendum the vote split was 55% to 45% in favour of remaining a member of the UK
- In the EU Referendum the vote split in Scotland was 62% to 38% in favour of remaining a member of the EU
These are separate events yet there seems to be an assumption that because Scotland wanted to remain part of the EU the people will default to splitting from the UK to stay with (or rejoin) the EU i.e. that a second Independence vote will be heavily influenced by the 'carrot' of EU Membership - surely it's a non sequitur to assume that because people voted 'Remain' they'll also vote for Independence.
Was there any firm indication during the Independence Referendum that the UK's EU Membership significantly affected the vote?
As the dust settles, people are likely to fall into three camps as far as their view of furture of Scotland is concerned
A - Independence & EU Membership
B - Independence and no EU Membership
C - Remain part of the UK with no EU Membership
When/if a second Independence Referendum takes place, those in the 'A' & 'C' camps above will have no problem deciding which way to vote, while those in the 'B' camp will have to decide if 'A' or 'C' is the lesser of two evils and I don't understand why the assumption seems to be that they'll head, en mass, for 'A'
As I said earlier, this isn't intended to be argumentative - I'd just like to understand the reasoning behind the assumption, at this point in time, that a second IndyRef will go in favour of Independence.